premarital house

[bren-stcloud]

My parents purchased property with home in 1990 with joint tenancy right of survorship. I was married in 1994. We put a modular home on the property which I consider marital property. The modular home is in both my name and my spouse. We did take out an equity loan on the property to help pay bills (I am still paying on it) and since we were married my husband had to be on the loan documents. He has made no payments towards equity loan. And neither one of us have paid anything towards the original home loan on the main house and property, insurance on the entire property or the taxes in the entire property since marriage. Is he entitled to anything from the main house and property in a divorce settlement? I understand he is entitled to half of the modular home in a split. He has made no contributions towards improvements on the main property or home during the marriage.

Trust me I have more questions regarding divorce issues, but will write in separate email. My husband seems to be extremely interested in how much money he can get from me. To him assets are combined but debts are separate.

Help me, my Mom is extremely worried about her home and property.

[Attorney Howard Iken]

Sorry but I would have to look at the deeds, and ask many more questions.

In general, any asset purchased by either spouse during the marriage will be marital.

Attorney Howard Iken

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[bren-stcloud]

Hi, the deed for the original home and property is in my Mother, Father and my names (maiden). The original home was purchased prior to my marriage by about 5 years. The home we live in was purchased by my husband and myself. It was placed on the pre-marital homesite in 1995.

Basically, all bills and purchases during the marriage are marital property and anything purchased before marriage is non-marital property? Is that basically it.

Thanks

[Attorney Howard Iken]

That is the starting point. Of course there are exceptions and arguments.